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« Descartes interpretation | Main | Diplomatic ambiguity »

October 21, 2007

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Jim Farmelant

Do you think that Carnap might have been drawn to something like R.M. Hare's prescriptivism, which as I understand it, was non-cognitivist, but which insisted on the rationality and universalizability of moral judgments?

Aaron Boyden

I have not read Hare for a very long time; I recall finding him really annoying, but I was an undergrad then, and I don't really remember why I thought that and don't trust the judgment of my younger self enough to be confident it was a good reason, much less that it's automatically something Carnap would have agreed with me about (though I was quite the little positivist back then). I guess I think if Carnap would have had a problem with Hare, it would have been about the details of his view; your brief description doesn't sound like anything Carnap would have had problems with.

I suppose I should go re-read my Hare, though; I think I do actually own one of his books.

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